Kobe's foul on Rubio
Sorry, I didn't think it would come out that wide. I am pretty new to this and it's not letting me edit it. This might be better?
Edit: Ok same mistake, if someone could tell me how to post a picture of normal size that would be great. But this is still an improved picture because it looks like Kobe hits his hand and not his wrist.
But my opinion is it should have been called (bias opinion), but I'm not suprised it didnt. I understand that it was a crucial non call at the most important time of the game, and I don't see why they wouldn't call it since they would call that on a regular three point shot. But, again (bias), the Lakers seem to have the invisible hand help guide them to the playoffs. Its not hard to believe since they are much more fun to talk about than Utah, Dallas or Portland, and they will bring in more viewers and money. Not saying they win because of refs, but the help doesn't hurt. Plus, the headlines would read Lakers win by big block from Kobe if it was truely legit.
Huh? Hand is part of the ball applies when you are going for a steal and you get your hand on the ball, and also partially on the players hand.
This is pure contact across the forearm/wrist, with no touching of the ball, on a JUMPSHOT.
Pretty egregious no call... they should have at least used the video replay to review it. It wasn't a random full court shot at the end of the 1st quarter or something. This is the last play of the game, which would have tied it.
Jon Krawczynski [email protected] 5m
NBA has informed #TWolves that Kobe Bryant should have been called for a foul on Ricky Rubio @ end of game, sources tell AP.
I'm sorry everyone nbanflguy is right, the lakers should go back to minny and rubio should shoot his free throws, I mean this is ridiculous how someone throws up a 40 ft heave at the buzzer and doesn't get a foul call.
Until this is fixed I'm boycotting the NBA.
If you re watch Rubio's final shot against the Lakers Kobe got his hand on the release. However, is this a foul? The rule isn't very clear and definitely isn't consistent. It states, "'The hand is considered "part of the ball" when it is in contact with the ball. Therefore, contact on that hand by a defender while it is in contact with the ball is not illegal." Does this mean that no foul should of been called?